D
Dr. Slick
Guest
Active8 <reply2group@ndbbm.net> wrote in message news:<89krt5jydy7f.dlg@news.individual.net>...
You wouldn't, it's just a theoretical question.
Once again, 1/s is 1/s, no matter where you find it, and s=jw,
so there IS a frequency component in the denominator of Kv/s,
so i'm thinking it might be the phase gain that goes to infinity
at 0 Hz. And then it becomes finite as you add frequency to the tuning
voltage (w>0 rad/sec).
Slick
And what if you DON'T use DC? What if you use a tuning sinewave
of a frequency that is close to the VCO's operating frequency?
Operate the loop outside of it's bandwidth? You'd have a modulator,
no? Or are you talking about just the VCO? I'd think you'd get a f'd
up envelope or a phase modulation.
how can you modulate outside of the loop bandwidth? The loop
will "correct" your modulation.
maybe i was standing on my head when i wrote that. Never bothered
thinking of modulating the VCO at a freq close to it's freq. Why
would you do that?
You wouldn't, it's just a theoretical question.
Once again, 1/s is 1/s, no matter where you find it, and s=jw,
so there IS a frequency component in the denominator of Kv/s,
so i'm thinking it might be the phase gain that goes to infinity
at 0 Hz. And then it becomes finite as you add frequency to the tuning
voltage (w>0 rad/sec).
Slick