Driving LEDs with a battery pack

On Sun, 12 Jul 2009 05:11:36 -0700 (PDT), fungus
<openglMYSOCKS@artlum.com> wrote:

On Jul 12, 7:49 am, Jon Kirwan <j...@infinitefactors.org> wrote:
On Sat, 11 Jul 2009 20:27:39 -0700 (PDT), fungus

openglMYSO...@artlum.com> wrote:
On Jul 12, 2:34 am, Jon Kirwan <j...@infinitefactors.org> wrote:

So I guess I don't know what circuit you were using.

The one with the capacitor... (of course!)

If you were using the diode/capacitor thing I added, then 100mA is
probably looking pretty bright!!

A little bit dimmer than one of the LEDs at 20mA.

That doesn't sound good.

 Since you have a scope, place a small 1 ohm resistor
in series with the six LEDs and scope out the voltage across it.
Current will be equal to the voltage you see and you will get to see
it in real-time, that way!

I don't have 1 ohm, the smallest I have is 4...

Okay.

With that resistor in there I see a wave which goes flat for a
little while (about 20% of the cycle), ramps up to 1V then
drops back down to zero. 1V is 250mA peak.

Okay.  At what frequency (rate?)  How much time between these things?
And what size is the capacitor??

This is the wave without capacitor:

http://www.artlum.com/jt/without.jpg

This is the with capacitor:

http://www.artlum.com/jt/with.jpg
Without a scale, both of these look about the same to me. I couldn't
make anything out of that except that it looks about like what I'd
expect as the voltage at the top of the LED stack with the capacitor
in place (__if__ the amplitude were small... on the order of tens of
millivolts.)

This is instead the voltage across a 4 ohm resistor (which should also
look like the voltage at the top of the LED stack), but the ripple
height should be low -- on the order of millivolts, too.

The frequency is 60kHz
Okay... that's good.

and it's about 1V amplitude
with a 4 ohm resistor (would be four volts with a 1 ohm).
Okay... that's bad. This suggests 1V/4ohm = 250mA variation. Which
sounds very bad to me.

The capacitor is 470uF (the smallest one I had with
decent legs on it)..
Okay. That will take some serious time to charge up, if it is working
okay. (1/4 second or more.) I hope it has a high enough voltage
spec, too! If not, bad news there.

Weirdly it seems to have changed since yesterday.
Yesterday the "down" part of the wave with capacitor
was completely horizontal at zero volts.

What's changed? Well, I tried removing LEDs to
see what would happen (100mA should be ok for
five, and a little bit over for four). One of them died
and another one didn't look too healthy afterwards
so I changed it.

If the wave was different then maybe they were
already damaged. 100mA average certainly seems
to indicate we're really abusing the LEDs..
Sounds like a changing situation. Parts are getting hammered.

Perhaps the better thing to do right now is to replace your LEDs with
a resistor! And play it safer until the darned thing is working
right.

With 6 LEDs running on say 30mA and call it 21V, you need 21V/30mA or
700 ohms. That's going to burn off over 1/2 watt, too! So make it a
2 watt resistor. (Don't use an 1/8th watt, unless you use a LOT of
them paralleled up.) 700 ohms is hard to find, so use something in
that area or parallel a few to get close to it. Just keep in mind
that power figure! It's a lot.

.....

Maybe someone can do somewhat better than me, looking at your
pictures. There is a sharp bottom in both pictures. But I don't know
if that is located at zero volts, or not. However, I would guess it
isn't at zero volts because of the sharp bottom. But there is 250mA
variation here (1V peak to peak) you say. So whatever the bottom
voltage is, that will tell us the minimum current reached. But we do
know there is a ripple in the current of 250mA, which is a lot. It is
possible you are hammering your LEDs with a lot more than that, given
that the low point doesn't flatten out.

Can you read off the voltage at the bottom, there? That will give a
little more information. (Assuming things don't change again!)

.....

In the meantime, see about getting some toroid cores. Now here I'm
out of my water depth. I don't know a good supplier for these and I'm
not well versed on materials, generally. Here are a couple of sites
that describes the various ferrite materials. (They are numbered.)

http://www.bytemark.com/products/ferrmat.htm
http://www.bytemark.com/products/fermgprp.htm

Personally, I'd prefer something called "high volume resistivity" and
the highest mu you can get is is probably material #43. The high
volume resistivity helps ensure you won't short things out with the
core, itself. However, if you are using insulated wire and winding
smoothly, I suppose any of the core materials are fine so long as they
don't have high losses at the frequencies of interest. (On that
score, if they rate losses at frequencies below 1MHz, you probably
want to stay away from it.) This limits you to #43, #61, #64, and
#67. The lowish permeability of #67 might be a bit restrictive,
though. Here's another page that talks a little about the materials
and something called AL.

http://www.bytemark.com/products/ferral.htm

The AL value is used for figuring out roughly what kind of inductance
you are likely to get with some number of windings. The fuller
formula for that is here:

http://www.bytemark.com/products/sectwo.htm

A comment about the cores. Here's a page on their sizes:

http://www.bytemark.com/products/ferrphys.html

An F-23 is just big enough to wind one layer of perhaps 30 windings
using #32 wire and maybe 14 windings of #26 wire. Unless you get
something with a large AL figure, you won't get too close to 200-400
uH with a single layer. You can always wind more, of course. Larger
cores let you wind more windings on the first layer and the inner hole
size is what will limit you on total windings, even if stacked.

Let's say you want to limit yourself to winding no more than 50 turns
for primary and secondary, each, and that you want 400uH for each.
Reading this again:

http://www.bytemark.com/products/sectwo.htm

You can see that you want AL=1E9*L/N^2, if L is in henries. With N=50
and L=400e-6, you get AL=160 (or more.) So you need to find something
around that value. Looking back at:

http://www.bytemark.com/products/ferral.htm

You can see that F-23 with #43 material fits the bill. The problem
will be winding that many turns on something that small. That means
fine wire and stacked windings, probably. But it would be tiny. An
F-240 with #61 looks about right. But I bet they will be expensive.

Another possibility is to look at increasing the frequency a bit
(reduces the inductance.) With L=200e-6, you only need AL=80 with 50
turns per winding. And so on.

Take a look at: (no recommendation here, I've never used them)

http://www.cwsbytemark.com/index.php?main_page=index&cPath=206_221

Anyway, finding the right core and the right supplier is a process.

Jon
 
On Sun, 12 Jul 2009 13:15:41 -0700 (PDT), fungus
<openglMYSOCKS@artlum.com> wrote:

On Jul 12, 8:22 pm, ehsjr <eh...@NOSPAMverizon.net> wrote:

Can you post a schematic of your setup, and indicate where you
are attaching the scope probe and ground clip?


OK, here's the schematic: http://www.artlum.com/jt/scheme.gif

* With C1 disconnected:

If look at the voltage at point "A" on the 'scope I see this:
http://www.artlum.com/jt/volts_a.jpg

Peak voltage is about 15V.

If I look at the voltage drop across R2 I see this:
http://www.artlum.com/jt/without.jpg

R2 is 4 ohms and this waveform goes from 0 to 1V,
ie. current is varying between 0mA and 250mA.
I don't know the phase difference between the volt
and current waveforms but if the volts are high when
the current is low then it makes sense.
snip
The curve on your 4 ohm resistor looks about right if there is no D8
present. So is this without D8 AND without C1?

Jon
 
On Sun, 12 Jul 2009 14:00:47 -0700 (PDT), fungus
<openglMYSOCKS@artlum.com> wrote:

I've just been poking around the circuit with the scope
ane multimeter and all the measurements make sense
now so basically it's finished.
Wonderful!

All I need to do is add the extra diode to protect the
transistor (I'll get some shottkys) then use a smaller
ferrite bead and fiddle with the number of windings on
it 'til the current through the LEDs is 20mA.
Sounds great. I think I'll play with some of the transformers I just
wired up, as well. I'm using #61 material for some of them (since I
happen to have it.) I also have #73 and #75B. From some curves I
have, I think the #73 might be okay. And in any case, the #75B stuff
I have only has a 1mm hole in it so I pretty much can't use it,
anyway. So I'll go with #61 and #73 and see how it goes.

Jon
 
On Jul 12, 8:22 pm, ehsjr <eh...@NOSPAMverizon.net> wrote:
Can you post a schematic of your setup, and indicate where you
are attaching the scope probe and ground clip?
OK, here's the schematic: http://www.artlum.com/jt/scheme.gif

* With C1 disconnected:

If look at the voltage at point "A" on the 'scope I see this:
http://www.artlum.com/jt/volts_a.jpg

Peak voltage is about 15V.

If I look at the voltage drop across R2 I see this:
http://www.artlum.com/jt/without.jpg

R2 is 4 ohms and this waveform goes from 0 to 1V,
ie. current is varying between 0mA and 250mA.
I don't know the phase difference between the volt
and current waveforms but if the volts are high when
the current is low then it makes sense.


* With C1 connected

If I look at point "A" I see a rock-solid 15V, no waveform
whatsoever.

If I look at the voltage drop across R2 I see this:
http://www.artlum.com/jt/with.jpg

- almost identical to when C2 is disconnected.

This makes no sense to me. If the voltage is steady
then the current should be steady. If the current is
varying then that means the resistance is also
varying, is this possible?

Whatever's going on, an average of 100mA with a
constant voltage seems like it's going to hurt my LEDs.
 
On Jul 12, 10:10 pm, Jon Kirwan <j...@infinitefactors.org> wrote:
This is the wave without capacitor:

http://www.artlum.com/jt/without.jpg

This is the with capacitor:

http://www.artlum.com/jt/with.jpg

Without a scale, both of these look about the same to me.
Yep, almost identical.
The capacitor is 470uF (the smallest one I had with
decent legs on it)..

Okay.  That will take some serious time to charge up, if it is working
okay.  (1/4 second or more.)
Yep, and even longer to discharge. I can still see a tiny
bit of light ten minutes after I switch it off.

 I hope it has a high enough voltage
spec, too!  If not, bad news there.
It doesn't say how many volts but it's pretty big and
seems OK so far (volts are good and it hasn't exploded).


Maybe someone can do somewhat better than me, looking at your
pictures.  There is a sharp bottom in both pictures.  But I don't know
if that is located at zero volts, or not.
Yes it is (or very close).

If volts are constant and current is varying then the only
possibility is that resistance is also changing. Makes
no sense to me.
 
No, wait, my bad. I just had a careful look at it and
the schematic was actually this:

http://www.artlum.com/jt/scheme_bad.gif

If I connect it up properly, like this:

http://www.artlum.com/jt/scheme.gif

Then all seems well. The current across the LEDs
is about 13mA according to the multimeter and
the voltage drop across R2 confirms this..

So it seems all is well...
 
I've just been poking around the circuit with the scope
ane multimeter and all the measurements make sense
now so basically it's finished.

All I need to do is add the extra diode to protect the
transistor (I'll get some shottkys) then use a smaller
ferrite bead and fiddle with the number of windings on
it 'til the current through the LEDs is 20mA.
 
On Jul 13, 12:07 am, Jon Kirwan <j...@infinitefactors.org> wrote:
openglMYSO...@artlum.com> wrote:
I've just been poking around the circuit with the scope
and multimeter and all the measurements make sense
now so basically it's finished.

Wonderful!
Yeah, thanks for all the help and patience with a newbie
(this is by far the most complex electronics I've ever done).

I was thinking about what's been gained by all this
(127 posts to figure out how to light up a LED...?).

The Joule Thief is designed to suck juice out of "dead"
batteries, but that's not what I'm trying to do at all.
So ... why should we use a Joule Thief instead of a
plain old resistor?

a) I did a plot of volts/current to compare a JT with POR,
using every combination of new/batteries I could find
(I don't have a fancy bench power supply). The results
are here: http://www.artlum.com/jt/jt_vs_res.gif

It's obvious that the JT changes the slope of the line in
our favour, ie. LED brightness drops off much more
slowly as battery voltage drops.

We can design a circuit which has much less risk of
overloading the LEDs (the original design of "20mA @ 3.75V"
will put about 35mA through the LEDs with fresh batteries
with a plain resistor, with a JT the same batteries would
only put about 24mA through them - much safer).


b) The JT puts the LEDs in series instead of parallel so
it's much easier to deliver the correct current to every
LED despite differences due to manufacturing tolerances
of the LEDs/resistors.
 
Jon Kirwan wrote:

So a little earlier, there was the battery
itself PLUS the aiding base winding, yielding approximately two
battery voltages which drive through the resistor. When the situation
takes place that there is zero volts across the base winding, then
there is still one battery voltage left. That's the "1/2" I
mentioned.
If I undertand correctly, what you're trying to say is
that in the non-saturating case, you can be sure that it
will *always* oscillate, because the collector current is
maxed out for whatever base current there is, and any
fall in base winding voltage at that point must cause
a decrease in supportable collector current.

Whereas if the inductor saturates, the remaining base
current with zero volts across the base winding might
still be enough to support whatever collector current
there is at the time.

However, I think it should be possible to make it work in
that mode. You just have to arrange things so that the
DC base current is less than that required to support
the collector current at which the core saturates. Then
a flip-over will happen in the same way as it does in
the non-saturating case.

/Ipeak

You can either choose to degrade the beta or
else degrade the effective base current.
The problem is that Ipeak is directly proportional to
beta. So if you choose a low estimate of beta, your
output current will be far too high, and you risk
cooking your LEDs. If you choose a high estimate, the
ouput current will be far too low, and you won't get
much light.

Like I said, for a one-off project this is okay. But
you can't really *design* this circuit to have any
kind of predictable performance.

On the other hand, if it's designed to work in saturation
mode, it ought to be more predictable. You may have to
make some measurements on the first one to find out the
saturation point of your core, but having done that,
the second one you build should work fairly much the
same.

Only because you've got a *resistor* in there, which
wastes a bit of power.

No, you can remove the resistor.
But then there doesn't appear to be anything to ensure
that the current flow through the LEDs is smooth. You
put a burst of energy into the capacitor... and then
there's nothing to stop the LEDs from taking it out
again in a big slurp.

--
Greg
 
fungus wrote:
On Jul 12, 8:22 pm, ehsjr <eh...@NOSPAMverizon.net> wrote:

Can you post a schematic of your setup, and indicate where you
are attaching the scope probe and ground clip?



OK, here's the schematic: http://www.artlum.com/jt/scheme.gif

* With C1 disconnected:

If look at the voltage at point "A" on the 'scope I see this:
http://www.artlum.com/jt/volts_a.jpg

Peak voltage is about 15V.

If I look at the voltage drop across R2 I see this:
http://www.artlum.com/jt/without.jpg

R2 is 4 ohms and this waveform goes from 0 to 1V,
ie. current is varying between 0mA and 250mA.
I don't know the phase difference between the volt
and current waveforms but if the volts are high when
the current is low then it makes sense.


* With C1 connected

If I look at point "A" I see a rock-solid 15V, no waveform
whatsoever.

If I look at the voltage drop across R2 I see this:
http://www.artlum.com/jt/with.jpg

- almost identical to when C2 is disconnected.

This makes no sense to me. If the voltage is steady
then the current should be steady. If the current is
varying then that means the resistance is also
varying, is this possible?
Yes, but it is not R2 resistance that changes. LEDs are non-linear
devices. They don't operate as if they were a fixed value of
resistance. When the voltage is above the total Vf of the LEDs, they
will conduct current as if they were a relatively low value resistance.
When the voltage drops below the total Vf of the LEDs, they will
conduct current as if they were a very high value of resistance.

Essentially, an LED acts like a zener diode, and attempts to
keep the voltage across itself at Vf by varying the current
through itself. So in your circuit, if the voltage from the
oscillator attempts to increase above Vf, the LEDs conduct
more current, dropping the "extra" voltage in R2.

Your 15V appears flat, but actually has 250 mV ripple on it.
If you set your scope to AC input and look at point A
with the vertical set at .1 volt per division, you'll
see about 2 and 1/2 division ripple.



Whatever's going on, an average of 100mA with a
constant voltage seems like it's going to hurt my LEDs.
Well, if I remember correctly what you said in another post,
that 100 mA figure is wrong. AIRC you said that supplying
the LEDs with a steadfy 20 mA DC gave a brighter glow than
you get from the joule thief. That means that the average
current has to be lower than 20 mA.

So - something is missing or not quite right.

Ed
 
Jon Kirwan wrote:

Sorry, I should have added something else. The effective inductance
goes very close to zero if there is no place to put energy. This can
allow an I that you'd imagine as worthy of some energy storage when,
in fact, the L just went effectively close to nil.
Yes, but as long as other things are equal, I'd
expect a higher permeability core to give you a
higher inductance, as long as the core doesn't
saturate.

Maybe saturation is the issue, though? That is,
although the inductance is higher, the current
can't go very high before the core saturates,
dropping the inductance to zero.

I'm studying the references you gave me now. They
do seem to say fairly explicitly that the energy
is stored in the gaps. I'll have to think about
that some more.

It can't be as simple as "gap good, iron bad",
because then the more gap you have, the more
energy you could store, so you'd be best off
with no core at all. That doesn't appear to be
the case, so there must be some opposing effect
at work.

--
Greg
 
On Mon, 13 Jul 2009 14:27:06 +1200, greg <greg@cosc.canterbury.ac.nz>
wrote:

Jon Kirwan wrote:

So a little earlier, there was the battery
itself PLUS the aiding base winding, yielding approximately two
battery voltages which drive through the resistor. When the situation
takes place that there is zero volts across the base winding, then
there is still one battery voltage left. That's the "1/2" I
mentioned.

If I undertand correctly, what you're trying to say is
that in the non-saturating case, you can be sure that it
will *always* oscillate, because the collector current is
maxed out for whatever base current there is, and any
fall in base winding voltage at that point must cause
a decrease in supportable collector current.
That sounds like you follow what I wrote.

Whereas if the inductor saturates, the remaining base
current with zero volts across the base winding might
still be enough to support whatever collector current
there is at the time.
That's why I think saturation isn't good.

However, I think it should be possible to make it work in
that mode. You just have to arrange things so that the
DC base current is less than that required to support
the collector current at which the core saturates. Then
a flip-over will happen in the same way as it does in
the non-saturating case.
Yes, you are probably right. And that may provide a little bit of
additional margin for operation even in the face of some saturation.
But it's probably better to design for no saturation and expect that
you've got some margin in case you didn't hit it perfectly.

/Ipeak

You can either choose to degrade the beta or
else degrade the effective base current.

The problem is that Ipeak is directly proportional to
beta. So if you choose a low estimate of beta, your
output current will be far too high, and you risk
cooking your LEDs. If you choose a high estimate, the
ouput current will be far too low, and you won't get
much light.
Actually, this isn't that much of a problem. On first blush, it may
seem that way. But the part you aren't including is the iterative
process I mentioned, using the datasheet. I go through the equations
several times and in doing so the iterative process pretty much always
nails where it will hit. The assumed beta (and actual) has somewhat
less impact because of that. It's not quite so "open loop" as it
seems. And it appears to work reasonably well. (Certainly, though,
using a different transistor with a markedly different beta
performance will clearly change the Ipeak. It will do that with the
equations and it will do that in practice, as well.)

In the case of powering the LEDs with the freewheeling diode and
capacitor, though, the nice thing is that the current is steady and
much lower so there is more room for error and less worry.

And besides, there is that base resistor. Just test the circuit and
adjust the resistor. Or else design for a lower target.

Like I said, for a one-off project this is okay. But
you can't really *design* this circuit to have any
kind of predictable performance.
For driving a stack of LEDs, a batch of the same transistor type will
all perform fairly close by. Seems to, anyway. I have thousands of
PN2222s in a box, so I suppose I could spend my days trying them. But
so far, they all behave close enough for this use.

But follow it with an LDO and you could power a micro with it. In
fact, I'm going to be testing that out soon.

On the other hand, if it's designed to work in saturation
mode, it ought to be more predictable. You may have to
make some measurements on the first one to find out the
saturation point of your core, but having done that,
the second one you build should work fairly much the
same.
I see your point here, now. Is the saturation point more predictable
here than the variations in a batch of same-designated PN2222As, for
example? I've not played around with cores enough to know.

Only because you've got a *resistor* in there, which
wastes a bit of power.

No, you can remove the resistor.

But then there doesn't appear to be anything to ensure
that the current flow through the LEDs is smooth. You
put a burst of energy into the capacitor... and then
there's nothing to stop the LEDs from taking it out
again in a big slurp.
Except they don't. What happens is that the BJT/transformer/resistor
pretty much define the Joules per unit time. If you know the power
required by your load (and that is NOT hard to estimate well with
LEDs) and you know the frequency (also predictable enough even with
your reticence about beta), you can size the cap well enough for
whatever ripple you can accept. It will just take longer, with larger
caps, to get started. And there will be wasted energy sitting on the
larger cap when you turn it off, I suppose. The LEDs won't behave as
radically as you seem to be suggesting. They don't in my experience,
yet, anyway.

Jon
 
On Mon, 13 Jul 2009 18:05:36 +1200, greg <greg@cosc.canterbury.ac.nz>
wrote:

Jon Kirwan wrote:

Sorry, I should have added something else. The effective inductance
goes very close to zero if there is no place to put energy. This can
allow an I that you'd imagine as worthy of some energy storage when,
in fact, the L just went effectively close to nil.

Yes, but as long as other things are equal, I'd
expect a higher permeability core to give you a
higher inductance, as long as the core doesn't
saturate.
Yes. Higher inductance means "SLOWER." But it doesn't mean more
energy per unit time. In fact, the inductance cancels out of the
equations in calculating power. The great thing about higher perm is
fewer windings. However... they are often wasteful of energy at
lower frequencies (for example, #75 ferrite is horribly lossy even
down at 1MHz with more than 20 times the loss as #64 ferrite at 1MHz,
while #75 has max permeability of 5000 and #64 is only 375.) Also,
the lower perm stuff seems to be non-conductive while the higher perm
seems to be pretty much a semi-conductor, at least. Still, some of
the higher perm stuff is okay, loss-wise. But it seems most of it is
intended for RFI shielding, not transformers. But I'm still reading
and learning, so there probably are some things I'm missing still.

Maybe saturation is the issue, though? That is,
although the inductance is higher, the current
can't go very high before the core saturates,
dropping the inductance to zero.
I think I take your point here. Higher mu means the same B will be
reached a earlier, I_peak wise, if keeping the inductance fixed and
the magnetic loop length fixed. B = mu*H = mu*N*I/l_m, but L is
proportional to N^2 and mu... so I guess B is reached by the square
root of the ratio of mu's. A mu=5000 material would saturate with 10
times lower I_peak than with a mu=50 material, assuming L is constant
and so is the magnetic loop length (same physical core shape?)

I'm studying the references you gave me now. They
do seem to say fairly explicitly that the energy
is stored in the gaps. I'll have to think about
that some more.
Yes. I had to sit and think about that, too. You mentioned just in
the prior paragraph the "dropping the inductance to zero." But that
doesn't actually happen. What happens is that it goes down to what
amounts to an air/vacuum core. It still has some inductance, but not
much. That's because when the core itself saturates, it's done with
and over for the core. So if you keep trying to store more energy the
field lines expand out into space around the core and use the
air/vacuum there to store energy, just like an air core would. So
there is still room and that means there is still inductance. Just
not much, because all those windings are now just packing energy into
the vast regions of air around it once the core is saturated up.

If you look closely at some of the better saturation curves, you will
see that there is still a _slight_ slope after saturation. That
slight slope is the emerging air core inductance.

It can't be as simple as "gap good, iron bad",
because then the more gap you have, the more
energy you could store, so you'd be best off
with no core at all. That doesn't appear to be
the case, so there must be some opposing effect
at work.
I think it is called N. Too many windings are required. Think about
the reluctance, which is inversely related to the permeability. High
perm materials have low reluctance. Low perm, like air especially,
have high reluctance. Net reluctance is affected by inserting an air
gap -- in fact, the air gap may so completely dominate things if it is
big that the other core material doesn't matter and you might as well
be winding an entirely air core from the start and just not bother
with the ferrite, powdered iron, etc.

Think of a series resistance circuit where you have some aluminum you
can run out some length of and the some carbon of the same diameter to
make a combined loop. What is the total resistance? Well, if it is
all aluminum and no carbon at all, pretty low. But if you start
packing in much of a length of carbon instead of aluminum, it won't
take much before the total resistance is pretty much based only on the
carbon and the aluminum that is left doesn't really matter, anymore.
It's like that.

Unless the gap is VERY small (smaller than I have ever seen), it
pretty much takes over. Permeability of the rest of the core doesn't
matter anymore and the calculation of inductance depends on the mu for
air and the magnetic length of the air gap (no longer the magnetic
loop length for the rest of the core.) You really need SMALL air gaps
in order to achieve any reasonable value for the resulting L. You
wrap the windings around the air gap itself to help contain its
fringing into the wild world and you use the otherwise useless core
with its high perm material primarily to give the flux a tight narrow
conduit around from one end of the air gap to the other end of the air
gap, without fringing all over hell and gone. Read chapter 5 from
that site.

Jon
 
Jon Kirwan wrote:

You mentioned just in
the prior paragraph the "dropping the inductance to zero." But that
doesn't actually happen. What happens is that it goes down to what
amounts to an air/vacuum core.
Yes, I realise that. I really meant it goes down to
something very small compared to the pre-saturation
inductance.

you'd be best off
with no core at all. That doesn't appear to be
the case, so there must be some opposing effect
at work.

I think it is called N. Too many windings are required.
I've come to much the same conclusion. With very low
inductance, the current shoots up to the maximum the
transistor can handle in a very short time, so the
circuit would have to operate at a very high frequency,
and then switching losses would ruin your day.

So it helps to have a moderate amount of inductance
to keep the rate of current increase down to something
manageable. To get that with an air core, you would
have to put on a lot of turns. Using a core with
moderate permeability lets you get away with less
turns. Its energy storage ability will be lower,
but still enough to be useful.

Think of a series resistance circuit where you have some aluminum you
can run out some length of and the some carbon of the same diameter to
make a combined loop.
Another analogy I've seen is that it's like trying to
make a circuit using bare wires immersed in salt water.
Really hard to keep the current from leaking all over
the place!

Anyhow, from what I've seen so far, it sounds like for
frequencies under 100kHz, either a metal powder ring
or a gapped ferrite ring would be best. A solid ferrite
ring, such as a bead, doesn't sound so good.

--
Greg
 
On Jul 13, 7:38 am, ehsjr <eh...@NOSPAMverizon.net> wrote:
So - something is missing or not quite right.
It was operator error... :-S
 
Jon Kirwan wrote:

you can size the cap well enough for
whatever ripple you can accept. It will just take longer, with larger
caps, to get started.
I don't doubt that the voltage across the capacitor will
be fairly steady, but that doesn't say much about the
current through the LEDs, since they have a highly
nonlinear voltage-current relationship.

The LEDs won't behave as
radically as you seem to be suggesting. They don't in my experience,
yet, anyway.
Have you actually observed the current waveform through
the LEDs with the capacitor but *without* any resistor
in series, or with only a very small one? Putting any
resistor in there for the purpose of measuring the
current could have quite a noticeable effect on the
smoothness.

--
Greg
 
Jon Kirwan wrote:

I see your point here, now. Is the saturation point more predictable
here than the variations in a batch of same-designated PN2222As, for
example? I've not played around with cores enough to know.
I haven't either, but there was a time in the pre-transistor
and early transistor era when pulse-generating circuits
involving saturating inductors were used. Apparently
at the time it was a relatively inexpensive way of getting
accurately-timed pulses, so the core characteristics
must have been fairly predictable.

--
Greg
 
On Mon, 13 Jul 2009 23:43:13 +1200, greg <greg@cosc.canterbury.ac.nz>
wrote:

Jon Kirwan wrote:

you can size the cap well enough for
whatever ripple you can accept. It will just take longer, with larger
caps, to get started.

I don't doubt that the voltage across the capacitor will
be fairly steady, but that doesn't say much about the
current through the LEDs, since they have a highly
nonlinear voltage-current relationship.

The LEDs won't behave as
radically as you seem to be suggesting. They don't in my experience,
yet, anyway.

Have you actually observed the current waveform through
the LEDs with the capacitor but *without* any resistor
in series, or with only a very small one? Putting any
resistor in there for the purpose of measuring the
current could have quite a noticeable effect on the
smoothness.
The issue here is energy transfer per unit time. You keep thinking in
terms of current and voltage separately. Change the viewpoint.

Jon
 
On Jul 13, 1:45 pm, greg <g...@cosc.canterbury.ac.nz> wrote:
I haven't either, but there was a time in the pre-transistor
and early transistor era when pulse-generating circuits
involving saturating inductors were used. Apparently
at the time it was a relatively inexpensive way of getting
accurately-timed pulses, so the core characteristics
must have been fairly predictable.
I don't doubt you can make a stable stream of pulses but
I bet they had a variable resistor to fine-tune the frequency.
 
On Mon, 13 Jul 2009 23:25:29 +1200, greg <greg@cosc.canterbury.ac.nz>
wrote:

Jon Kirwan wrote:

You mentioned just in
the prior paragraph the "dropping the inductance to zero." But that
doesn't actually happen. What happens is that it goes down to what
amounts to an air/vacuum core.

Yes, I realise that. I really meant it goes down to
something very small compared to the pre-saturation
inductance.

you'd be best off
with no core at all. That doesn't appear to be
the case, so there must be some opposing effect
at work.

I think it is called N. Too many windings are required.

I've come to much the same conclusion. With very low
inductance, the current shoots up to the maximum the
transistor can handle in a very short time, so the
circuit would have to operate at a very high frequency,
and then switching losses would ruin your day.

So it helps to have a moderate amount of inductance
to keep the rate of current increase down to something
manageable. To get that with an air core, you would
have to put on a lot of turns. Using a core with
moderate permeability lets you get away with less
turns. Its energy storage ability will be lower,
but still enough to be useful.

Think of a series resistance circuit where you have some aluminum you
can run out some length of and the some carbon of the same diameter to
make a combined loop.

Another analogy I've seen is that it's like trying to
make a circuit using bare wires immersed in salt water.
Really hard to keep the current from leaking all over
the place!

Anyhow, from what I've seen so far, it sounds like for
frequencies under 100kHz, either a metal powder ring
or a gapped ferrite ring would be best. A solid ferrite
ring, such as a bead, doesn't sound so good.
I had been wondering out loud in this thread earlier about using a
gapped arrangement. Basically an air core inductor with a ring of
material linking the north and south poles, minimizing fringing that
usually takes place in an all-air inductor between the poles and
allowing the gap itself to be a very controlled magnetic loop length
of air. I guess the secondary wound elsewhere would be linked well
enough by the ring of material so that flux changes would induce the
desired voltage without the kind of usual poorer linking seen in pure
air cases.

My ignorance on this subject makes me feel still uncomfortable. In
thinking about your above comment more, it seems to me that the
effective permeability listed for any particular core (which is a max
figure) may also tell us just how much effective air gap there is. If
they are very high perm, there cannot be much of an effective air gap,
at all. I think this couples well with the idea that high perm
materials are also conductive. Low perm materials, though, as well as
some comments from the site I referred to you about gaps in ferrites,
suggest to me that what makes the difference here is mostly the sum of
all those air gaps in the material. They both increase electrical
resistance due to their presence, but also increase reluctance. So
perhaps the low perm materials work better here than high perm for the
reasoning line you are following above.

Still, if the permeability isn't close to 1 (and 20 seems to be the
lowest I've seen), then it's NOT dominated by the air gap as it would
be in anything gapped. But now I see a problem with that reasoning,
too. I'm speaking about permeability. What I'm neglecting is
magnetic loop length. There is a relationship between the
permeability, of course. But the permeability doesn't tell me the
permeance, just one part of that. I need to sit down with a specific
core, look over its exact physical dimensions along with its max rated
permeability and the AL rating for it, and work out how large of an
effective air gap there is from all that. Not just hand wave about
it.

If I had to guess beforehand, I'd say that low perm ferrites store
energy pretty well, like a well-, and small-, gapped core might while
still allowing some decent energy storage. But I also agree, as I
wrote on the 9th, that an air gap seems to make good sense.

Jon
 

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