C
Clive Arthur
Guest
On 10/03/2020 12:54, Rick C wrote:
<snip>
Using your sim and setting V5 and V6 amplitudes to 2V so they're the
same amplitude opposite phase and the op-amp doesn't clip, and using
your .tran simulation.
For your 1kHz burst INA and INB are pretty much the same amplitude
because C101 and C100 are only about 160R at 1kHz.
The current through R41 is 300uA p-p and through R43 it's 100uA - the
input impedance seen at INA is 13.3kR and at INB it's 40kR.
But for your common mode signal, the currents through R41 and R43 are
the same. When INA and INB are equal, so are the input impedances at
40kR. If you increase the CM amplitude you can see in the 1kHz burst
that the in-phase common mode current is the same in both resistors,
while the opposite phase differential currents are 3:1.
--
Cheers
Clive
<snip>
My simulations have shown no situation where the input impedances are not equal and in fact the value appears to be around 40 kohms on each input leg. I just can't explain that for a differential input signal.
Using your sim and setting V5 and V6 amplitudes to 2V so they're the
same amplitude opposite phase and the op-amp doesn't clip, and using
your .tran simulation.
For your 1kHz burst INA and INB are pretty much the same amplitude
because C101 and C100 are only about 160R at 1kHz.
The current through R41 is 300uA p-p and through R43 it's 100uA - the
input impedance seen at INA is 13.3kR and at INB it's 40kR.
But for your common mode signal, the currents through R41 and R43 are
the same. When INA and INB are equal, so are the input impedances at
40kR. If you increase the CM amplitude you can see in the 1kHz burst
that the in-phase common mode current is the same in both resistors,
while the opposite phase differential currents are 3:1.
--
Cheers
Clive