R
Richard Crowley
Guest
"Bruce Murphy" wrote ...
OTOH, you can't argue with your own brain and iris.Irrelavnt. If we look at the post in question both the incandescent
and LED sources were implied (thanks to the other serious
misconceptions) to saturate the eye.
Now, given that there is *no more detector range available* how can
one appear 'brighter' than the other? This is a comparitive, not
whether it appears bright or not, or even whether there is an aversion
response to it.
You can't handwave and say 'because the brain is hardwired that way'
becuase under the circumstances that the OP described, there is no
remaining capacity to make that judgement. That's what saturated
means.