S
Sean McIlroy
Guest
hi all
apparently there is a well-defined impedance between any two terminals
in an electrical network that contains only passive components
(resistors, capacitors, inductors, independent power sources). why is
this the case? any help would be very much appreciated.
peace
stm
apparently there is a well-defined impedance between any two terminals
in an electrical network that contains only passive components
(resistors, capacitors, inductors, independent power sources). why is
this the case? any help would be very much appreciated.
peace
stm