Chip with simple program for Toy

[Roger Johansson]

"Larry Brasfield" <donotspam_larry_brasfield@hotmail.com> wrote:

The bead can be modelled as an inductor coupled to
current paths within the bead itself. This makes it a
lossy inductor, which you can see if you look at the
complex impedance carefully.

I think it is more correct to see the bead as the core of an inductor,
the inductor is the wire going through the bead, and it all works a a
filter, stopping high frequencies and allowing lower frequencies, as all
inductors do.

That the core has a shape of a hollow bead or cylinder does not change
its function as a core for the inductor.

That the inductor in this case is a piece of straight wire through the
bead does not change its function as an inductor.

The core makes the inductance value a lot higher than in another straight
wire. Iron powder or ferrite cores always make inductance values higher.




--
Roger J.

 

[Roger Johansson]

Roger Johansson <no-email@no.invalid> wrote:

The core makes the inductance value a lot higher than in another straight
wire. Iron powder or ferrite cores always make inductance values higher.

Whenever an AC signal travels through a wire it creates a magnetic field around the wire, which effectively makes an inductance of
the wire.

This inductance is like many small coils along the length of the wire.

To increase the inductance we can arrange the wire in a coil, or put iron/ferrite material near it, around it, close to it, to strengthen the
magnetic field, which increases the inductance.



--
Roger J.

 

[John Popelish]

eeh wrote:

Hi,

Just a question: Is ferrite bead actually an inductor? Or a filter?

Thnaks!

It is a one turn inductor (the wire passes once through the hole in

the core). It is usually used as part of a filter. That is, it is
used as a series impedance that passes most of the desired low
frequency part and gets in the way of or absorbs some of the high
frequency part of whatever signal enters it. The absorb comes into
play because it if a lossy inductor at higher frequencies. Often its
effect is increased by connecting a capacitor between the signal line
and ground to act as a load at those higher frequencies, so that the
impedance of the wire passing through the bead drops voltage.

Many beads have two or more wires passing through them (or whole
bunches of wire). The bead couples them all together and acts as a
filter for any high frequencys that are shared in common. Any
currents that pass one way through one wire and back out the other way
through another wire make no net magnetic field in the core, so are
not affected by it.

 

[Active8]

So why do you prefer slackware?
--
BRs,
Mike

 

[Active8]

On Thu, 31 Mar 2005 01:56:48 GMT, Rich Grise wrote:

On Wed, 30 Mar 2005 08:03:59 -0800, SklettTheNewb wrote:

I had lost sight of the op's *assignment* and was thinking he had to
use a liquid fuel... that is not the case, so my ideas are a waste.
The match would be the easiest for sure!

But seeing a match strike as the performer lifts the lid isn't going
to be much of a trick. I think the OP wants the candle to be already
burning, or at least look like it. A candle that's being lit looks
different from a candle that's already burning. Maybe he should use
a trick cup, with vent holes so that he can light the candle some
moments in advance of lifting the cup.

But if a match strikes just as the cup gets lifted, it's not even a
trick. Sorry.

I figure a slow lift would give things time to settle. No ta-da with
that, though. Then there's the smoke.
--
Best Regards,
Mike

 

[Andrew Holme]

jason wrote:

Say for a mosfet(or cmos inverter) which has a DC biasing and ac
signal applied to it).

When we are using equation
Id = 1/2.W/L.unCox.(Vgs-Vth)^2 ---------eq(1)

Actually we are calculating the Id in DC or ac?
In most of the time, we are interested in Id(dc) or Id(ac)?

I see there is book that put
Drain current = Id(dc) +id(ac)

So I just wondering if equation 1 will give us dc value or ac value?

It gives you the sum:

1/2.W/L.unCox.(Vgs-Vth)^2 = Id(dc) +id(ac)

Or the equation (1) is true for both ac and dc where we need to use it
at a ac small signal circuit or dc small signal circuit?

You must use calculus to work out small-signal transconductance gm = d(Id) /
d(Vgs)

Also for transfer function, we are interested to find the Vout/Vin at
ac or dc value?

Frequency is a variable in the transfer function e.g. the Laplace s, or jw
(w = omega)
For DC, w=0
You can write a trasnsfer function, in terms of s, or jw, valid for both AC
and DC.
Often, but not always, we are only interested in AC

And also the input and output impedance, will there be difference for
ac or dc analysis?

For small-signal analysis, innput/output impedances may be calculated using
linear approximation i.e. taking the slope of the graph at that point and
assuming it approximates a striaght line.

In books, it seems like when it use small signal circuit to analyse
id, gmvgs and so on. All are written in small letter. Are they all ac
value to be taken into consideration?

"Small signal analysis" means: small AC signal.

 

[Jim Gregory]

I have seen op-amp audio i/ps fed from a source wire not thread just the
once, but re-looped in and out again 2 to 3 times, through the hole of a
small ferrite bead. Does this method re-filter its unnecessary HF each pass?
And is that practice kosher?

"John Popelish" <jpopelish@rica.net> wrote in message
news:bc6dnbRem7l969bfRVn-jQ@adelphia.com...

eeh wrote:
Hi,

Just a question: Is ferrite bead actually an inductor? Or a filter?

Thnaks!

It is a one turn inductor (the wire passes once through the hole in the
core). It is usually used as part of a filter. That is, it is used as a
series impedance that passes most of the desired low frequency part and
gets in the way of or absorbs some of the high frequency part of whatever
signal enters it. The absorb comes into play because it if a lossy
inductor at higher frequencies. Often its effect is increased by
connecting a capacitor between the signal line and ground to act as a load
at those higher frequencies, so that the impedance of the wire passing
through the bead drops voltage.

Many beads have two or more wires passing through them (or whole bunches
of wire). The bead couples them all together and acts as a filter for any
high frequencys that are shared in common. Any currents that pass one way
through one wire and back out the other way through another wire make no
net magnetic field in the core, so are not affected by it.

 

[Roger Johansson]

"Jim Gregory" <jim.greg@ntlworld.com> wrote:

I have seen op-amp audio i/ps fed from a source wire not thread just
the once, but re-looped in and out again 2 to 3 times, through the hole
of a small ferrite bead. Does this method re-filter its unnecessary HF
each pass? And is that practice kosher?

A wire is an inductor in itself, a certain number of nanohenries for each
millimeter of wire. That inductance is so small that we usually ignore it
and it has no practical effect on the signal, as long as the frequencies
we are interested in is below the GigaHertz range.

If we arrange the wire in a loop, a turn, it becomes a coil, and these
small inductance values multiply and the wire attenuates frequencies in
lower ranges, like the hundred MegaHertz range.

If you make more turns, like a hundred turns, it attenuates frequencies
in the MehaHertz range or even lower, like the 100kHz range.

Putting ironpowder/ferrite material close to the wire multiplies the
inductance because it amplifies the magnetic field around the wire or
coil. This lowers the affected frequencies a lot.

A straight wire attenuates or affects the gigahertz range, put a ferrite
bead on it and it affects the hundred megahertz range.

Using both methods simultaneously, arranging the wire in a coil and
putting ferrite material close to it, around it, or inside the coil,
increases the inductance even more.

Taking the wire several times through the same hole in a ferrite bead is
to make a coil and to put ferrite around it, inside the coil and outside
it, which makes the wire into a much bigger inductance, which affects
lower frequencies.

One sort of core is called a pot core, because it looks like a pot where
the coil is put inside a pot of ferrite/iron material. You can put
another pot core on top of it, like a lid of a jar, so the coil is
completely surrounded by magnetic material, both inside and outside the
coil.

http://www.elexp.biz/cmp_core.htm
http://www.zmanmagnetics.com/e_core_pot_core.htm


--
Roger J.

 

[Fred Bloggs]

mister.steve.smith@gmail.com wrote:

I am trying to use the TLV2241 DIP package IC to make a relaxation
oscillator(square wave oscillator using positive feedback). I first
simulated the design in spice (both ORCAD PSPICE and WINSPICE). I used
the SPICE model of the TLV2241 provided in the data sheet provided by
TI.COM . Please see the spice circuit file below.

Problem: In the simulated version I get an oscillation period of approx
6.2ms. However when I built the circuit using the chip I actually got a
frequency of 19Hz(Period approx 52ms)
I have made sure that all components are close to the specs as
specified in the spice simulation
Question) Is the model provided by TI, as shown below, adequate to
accurately model the opamp. Please suggest why is there such a
disparity between spice simulation(s) and the actual circuit?
Thanks
SPICE CIRCUIT FILE FOR SQUARE WAVE GENERATOR USING TLV2241
----------------------------------------------------------
*Relaxation oscillator using a single supply opamp
* connections: non-inverting input
* | inverting input
* | | positive power supply
* | | | negative power supply
* | | | | output
* | | | | |
.SUBCKT TLV2241 1 2 3 4 5
C1 11 12 9.8944E-12
C2 6 7 30.000E-12
CEE 10 99 8.8738E-12
DC 5 53 DY
DE 54 5 DY
DLP 90 91 DX
DLN 92 90 DX
DP 4 3 DX
EGND 99 0 POLY(2) (3,0) (4,0) 0 .5 .5
FB 7 99 POLY(5) VB VC VE VLP VLN 0 61.404E6 -1E3 1E3 61E6 -61E6
GA 6 0 11 12 1.0216E-6
GCM 0 6 10 99 10.216E-12
IEE 10 4 DC 54.540E-9
IOFF 0 6 DC 5E-12
HLIM 90 0 VLIM 1K
Q1 11 2 13 QX1
Q2 12 1 14 QX2
R2 6 9 100.00E3
RC1 3 11 978.81E3
RC2 3 12 978.81E3
RE1 13 10 30.364E3
RE2 14 10 30.364E3
REE 10 99 3.6670E9
RO1 8 5 10
RO2 7 99 10
RP 3 4 1.4183E6
VB 9 0 DC 0
VC 3 53 DC .88315
VE 54 4 DC .88315
VLIM 7 8 DC 0
VLP 91 0 DC 540
VLN 0 92 DC 540
.MODEL DX D(IS=800.00E-18)
.MODEL DY D(IS=800.00E-18 RS=1M CJO=10P)
.MODEL QX1 NPN(IS=800.00E-18 BF=27.270E21)
.MODEL QX2 NPN(IS=800.0000E-18 BF=27.270E21)
.ENDS

XOP1 3 1 4 0 2 TLV2241
Cout 2 6 0.033uF
RF 1 6 9.99K
CF 1 0 10uF
R2 6 3 1.001K
R1 3 0 19.97K
VS1 4 0 5V
.TRAN 0.01ms 100ms
.PROBE
.PLOT TRAN V(2)
.END

Change the lines:

RF 1 6 9.99K
CF 1 0 10uF
R2 6 3 1.001K
R1 3 0 19.97K

to:

RF 1 2 10K
CF 1 0 10uF
R2 2 3 20K
R1 3 0 20K

and add:

R4 3 4 20K

The period should be 1.4*RF*CF=140ms if you want more like 5ms then make
CF=0.33uF.

 

[Andrew Holme]

SklettTheNewb wrote:

I have been messing with CircuiMaker and doing "spice simulations"
I have also been reading from these different sites:
http://www.kpsec.freeuk.com/ohmslaw.htm
http://www.play-hookey.com/digital/ripple_counter.html
http://www.allaboutcircuits.com/vol_1/chpt_2/index.html

I'm slowly getting my head around the current and voltage ideas. I
have encountered a strange situation w/ a spice simulation like this:


LED 680
.--|<-----|___|-----.
|
|9V
---
-
|
-------------------'
(created by AACircuit v1.28.5 beta 02/06/05 www.tech-chat.de)

if I place the probe before the 680 ohm resistor, I get 9v, if I place
it between the resistor and the LED I get 1.79V and 10.60mA

I'm trying to understand how I got that number, I know that;
V
I = -
R

if I use that formula with my values:
9
- = 0.013
680

- that makes no sense.
I'm missing something VERY basic and simple, but I can't figure it
out.

The voltage drop across the resistor is 9 - 1.79 = 7.21 V

7.21 / 680 = 10.60mA

 

[Fritz Schlunder]

"SklettTheNewb" <SteveKlett@gmail.com> wrote in message
news:1112281089.235621.104250@o13g2000cwo.googlegroups.com...

I have been messing with CircuiMaker and doing "spice simulations"
I have also been reading from these different sites:
http://www.kpsec.freeuk.com/ohmslaw.htm
http://www.play-hookey.com/digital/ripple_counter.html
http://www.allaboutcircuits.com/vol_1/chpt_2/index.html

I'm slowly getting my head around the current and voltage ideas. I
have encountered a strange situation w/ a spice simulation like this:


LED 680
.--|<-----|___|-----.
| |
| |9V
| ---
| -
| |
|-------------------'
(created by AACircuit v1.28.5 beta 02/06/05 www.tech-chat.de)

if I place the probe before the 680 ohm resistor, I get 9v, if I place
it between the resistor and the LED I get 1.79V and 10.60mA

I'm trying to understand how I got that number, I know that;
V
I = -
R

if I use that formula with my values:
9
- = 0.013
680

- that makes no sense.
I'm missing something VERY basic and simple, but I can't figure it out.

LEDs aren't resistors and don't obey Ohm's law. They usually have an
approximately fixed voltage drop across them almost independent of the
current flowing through them. Your simulated LED has a forward voltage of
1.79 Volts. This is a fairly typical voltage drop for most LEDs except for
blue and white ones (which usually drop closer to around 3.5V)

You have a voltage loop. The sum of the voltages around the loop (if you
respect polarities) is always zero. Starting from the bottom of your
schematic and going counterclockwise you gain +9V up through the voltage
source, then you drop 7.21V across the 680 ohm resistor, and then drop
another 1.79V across the LED. So +9V - 7.21V - 1.79V = 0V. If in your
simulation you were to measure the voltage across the 680 ohm resistor
(instead of just measuring voltages with respect to ground) you would indeed
find it to be 7.21V. The resistor obeys ohms law and you will indeed find
that yes: 7.21V/680 = 0.01060A.

 

[Bob Eldred]

"SklettTheNewb" <SteveKlett@gmail.com> wrote in message
news:1112281089.235621.104250@o13g2000cwo.googlegroups.com...

I have been messing with CircuiMaker and doing "spice simulations"
I have also been reading from these different sites:
http://www.kpsec.freeuk.com/ohmslaw.htm
http://www.play-hookey.com/digital/ripple_counter.html
http://www.allaboutcircuits.com/vol_1/chpt_2/index.html

I'm slowly getting my head around the current and voltage ideas. I
have encountered a strange situation w/ a spice simulation like this:


LED 680
.--|<-----|___|-----.
| |
| |9V
| ---
| -
| |
|-------------------'
(created by AACircuit v1.28.5 beta 02/06/05 www.tech-chat.de)

if I place the probe before the 680 ohm resistor, I get 9v, if I place
it between the resistor and the LED I get 1.79V and 10.60mA

I'm trying to understand how I got that number, I know that;
V
I = -
R

if I use that formula with my values:
9
- = 0.013
680

- that makes no sense.
I'm missing something VERY basic and simple, but I can't figure it out.


Any help or guidance would be REALLY appreciated at this point.
Thanks,
Steve

Your equation is right but your reasoning is wrong. You measured the voltage

across the LED as 1.79 Volts. What is the voltage across the resistor? Well,
it has to be 9 - 1.79 = 7.21 Volts, right? Therefore the current is I = V/R
= 7.21/680 = 10.6 mA. As you can see, ohms law applies to the voltage across
the resistance in question and not some other voltage like the battery,
etc. Now, given that, what is the resistance of the LED? You should get
168.8 Ohms. What is the series resistance of the resistor and the LED, You
should get 848.8 Ohms. Now what is the current in the circuit, It should be
(total voltage/total resistance) 9V/848.9 = 10.6 mA which checks.
Bob

 

[Terry]

"eeh" <eehobbyist@yahoo.com.hk> wrote in message
news:1112233248.040364.249860@g14g2000cwa.googlegroups.com...

Hi,

Just a question: Is ferrite bead actually an inductor? Or a filter?

Thnaks!

xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx

The wire threaded through the bead (either once or a number of times)
becomes (or already is depending on frequency) an inductor.

Inductors in the presence of AC current through the wire have reactance
(often designated as Xl) which is measured in ohms. The higher the
frequency the greater the reactance.

In one sense an inductor alone is not a 'filter'. (Draw a line across piece
of paper and put some coils/squiggles in the middle of it to indicate
inductance and it should demonstrate that is it not 'filtering' anything in
particular)?

Filters are traditionally thought of as circuits designed to;
a) Allow all signals/voltages above a certain frequency - High Pass.
b) Allow all signals/voltages below a certain frequency - Low Pass.
c) Allow all signals within a certain bandwidth - Band Pass.
d) Prevent or bypass a certain specific frequency signal/voltage which is
desired or causing a problem etc. - Often called by some such name as a
'Stop' or 'Spike' or 'Notch' Filter.

True 'filters' require design of all the components and impedances involved.
Filter circuits can be very simple comprising little more than one inductor
and/or one capacitor, or very complicated with many components.

However if the requirement is to stop or attenuate higher frequencies while
allowing lower ones to pass an inductor including one using a ferrite bead
as the magnetic core could be considered to 'filter out' those higher
frequencies.

Thus a ferrite bead on the AC power lead of a computer monitor would allow
the 60 hertz AC power to go through unimpeded. But high frequencies which
might be causing interference to/from nearby equipment could be greatly
attenuated.

Inductance 'L' is measured in Henries. Reactance is measured in ohms.
Frequency is measured in hertz.
Reactance Xl = 2 x pi x frequency x L.
Thus Xl at 1000 hertz for 1 henry inductor is; 2 x pi x 1000 x 1 = 6284 ohms
(Inductive reactance).
Xl at freq. 20,000hz for a 0.01 henry inductor is; 2 x pi x 20,000 x 0.01 =
1256 ohms
At very, very high frequencies the inductive reactance of the wire itself,
without any extra inductors (beads etc.) can be most significant.

Any help?

 

[Terry]

"jason" <cheanglong@gmail.com> wrote in message
news:1112232472.623152.11490@o13g2000cwo.googlegroups.com...

Hello All,

I have been studying electronics for some time but my understanding on
ac and dc analysis is still not too clear.

I wish you all can put some time to explain a little about the
following;

Say for a mosfet(or cmos inverter) which has a DC biasing and ac signal
applied to it).

When we are using equation
Id = 1/2.W/L.unCox.(Vgs-Vth)^2 ---------eq(1)

Actually we are calculating the Id in DC or ac?
In most of the time, we are interested in Id(dc) or Id(ac)?

I see there is book that put
Drain current = Id(dc) +id(ac)

So I just wondering if equation 1 will give us dc value or ac value?

Or the equation (1) is true for both ac and dc where we need to use it
at a ac small signal circuit or dc small signal circuit?

Also for transfer function, we are interested to find the Vout/Vin at
ac or dc value?

And also the input and output impedance, will there be difference for
ac or dc analysis?

Anyone who has any document to explain about this, kindly share with
me.

In books, it seems like when it use small signal circuit to analyse id,
gmvgs and so on. All are written in small letter. Are they all ac value
to be taken into consideration?

Kindly shed some lights on these topic.
Please help

Thank you so much


rgds and thanks
Jason

Jason; having just taken a 'transistor' course at an advanced age and being

no expert it looks to me;

1) Upper case designations such Id are for DC.
2) Lower case, such as id are for AC which are the much slighter or 'Small
signal variations' through the device.
DC is the steady or unvarying quantity at one particular point of the
operating characteristic of the device.
3) Without referring to my text book;
Your Eqn. 1 looks to me like it is the one which determines a DC operating
point because it takes into account the threshold (Vgth)! i.e. (Vgs - Vgth)
.......

But willing to be corrected!

 

[Larry Brasfield]

"Roger Johansson" <no-email@no.invalid> wrote in message
news:Xns962A35D368FEE86336@81.174.12.30...

"Larry Brasfield" <donotspam_larry_brasfield@hotmail.com> wrote:

The bead can be modelled as an inductor coupled to
current paths within the bead itself. This makes it a
lossy inductor, which you can see if you look at the
complex impedance carefully.

I think it is more correct to see the bead as the core of an inductor,
the inductor is the wire going through the bead,

If I read you correctly, your correction would not be
necessary if I had said "The two terminal device consisting
of a short length of wire going thru the bead can be ...".
While I would be hard put to deny the correctness of that
correction, I doubt that anybody failed to understand what
object my "can be modelled" statement applied to.

and it all works a a
filter, stopping high frequencies and allowing lower frequencies, as all
inductors do.

That is a correction I cannot accept. In response to the
question, "Is ferrite bead ... a filter?", I wrote:
The bead is intended to form a filter, in conjunction with
the impedances surrounding it.
Your addition of the usually expected gross frequency response
goes beyond the OP's question. I don't dispute that it usually
forms a LPF, but that new issue is not "more correct".

[More new and uncontroverted facts cuts.]

--
--Larry Brasfield
email: donotspam_larry_brasfield@hotmail.com
Above views may belong only to me.

 

[Rich Grise]

On Thu, 31 Mar 2005 05:00:16 +0000, Active8 wrote:

So why do you prefer slackware?

The first time I downloaded Linux, back in the 1990s, since I
had no idea which distro to pick, I basically picked Slackware
because of the name, being a slacker and all. ;-) And I've
been satisfied with it, so there's no reason to change.

And of course, need I mention the Slack mistique? ;-) I'm
not just a slacker, I'm a Slacker. ;-P

Cheers!
Rich

 

[Active8]

On Thu, 31 Mar 2005 16:59:26 GMT, Rich Grise wrote:

On Thu, 31 Mar 2005 05:00:16 +0000, Active8 wrote:

So why do you prefer slackware?

The first time I downloaded Linux, back in the 1990s, since I
had no idea which distro to pick, I basically picked Slackware
because of the name, being a slacker and all. ;-) And I've
been satisfied with it, so there's no reason to change.

And of course, need I mention the Slack mistique? ;-) I'm
not just a slacker, I'm a Slacker. ;-P

I've always liked the name, too. Slack... Church of the Sub-genious.

What's the Linux equivalent of a disk cluster and what sizes are we
talking about? iNodes come to mind, but I think that's like a FAT
entry. I was just thinking of all the wasted disk space I have from
all the shortcuts - symbolic links, to you. In NTFS a 40 byte or so
URL or 500+ byte shortcut takes up 4 KB - 16 KB on a large FAT32
partition.
--
Best Regards,
Mike

 

[John Popelish]

Jim Gregory wrote:

I have seen op-amp audio i/ps fed from a source wire not thread just the
once, but re-looped in and out again 2 to 3 times, through the hole of a
small ferrite bead. Does this method re-filter its unnecessary HF each pass?
And is that practice kosher?

Passing a wire more than once through a core multiplies the effective
inductance produced by approximately the turns count squared. So 3
passes gives almost 9 times the inductance and so, 9 times the
impedance for all frequencies that the device acts as an inductor.
Unfortunately, it also increases the shunt capacitance that jumps
signal around the inductor at high frequencies and lowers the
frequency of self resonance, at which the device ceases to act like an
inductor. So it helps improve noise rejection or whatever inductive
effect you may be after at the lower end of the spectrum, while giving
up lots of effect at the high end.

 

[Larry Brasfield]

"Active8" <reply2group@ndbbm.net> wrote in message
news:d2gqd8.2ss.1@active8.fqdn.th-h.de...

[Slack/er stuff zapped.]

What's the Linux equivalent of a disk cluster and what sizes are we
talking about? iNodes come to mind, but I think that's like a FAT
entry.

An inode is more like a FAT filesystem directory entry since
both provide a link or links to the actual file data allocation list.
The Linux equivalent of a disk cluster (in ext2fs, the default lately)
is approximately the 512 byte disk sector, since that is the lowest
level of allocation granularity.

I was just thinking of all the wasted disk space I have from
all the shortcuts - symbolic links, to you. In NTFS a 40 byte or so
URL or 500+ byte shortcut takes up 4 KB - 16 KB on a large FAT32
partition.

You are simply mistaken about how NTFS stores the content
of short files. They go right into the MFT, taking no more
space than the mere existence of another file would. Consider
this screen scrape just now taken from my workstation with
NTFS on device "C:":

=========== screen scrape begins ==============
[C:\Play]

dir *.url

Volume in drive C is unlabeled Serial number is CCCE:6A5D
4NT: (Sys) The system cannot find the file specified.
"C:\Play\*.url"
0 bytes in 0 files and 0 dirs
168,907,882,496 bytes free

[C:\Play]

echo "1234567890123456789012345678901234567890" > x.url

[C:\Play]

dir *.url

Volume in drive C is unlabeled Serial number is CCCE:6A5D
Directory of C:\Play\*.url

3/31/2005 9:37 44 x.url
44 bytes in 1 file and 0 dirs 4,096 bytes allocated
168,907,882,496 bytes free

[C:\Play]

type x.url
"1234567890123456789012345678901234567890"

=========== screen scrape ends ==============

Note the similarity of the 12 digit numbers. No space was
taken beyond using an already-allocated MFT entry.


--
--Larry Brasfield
email: donotspam_larry_brasfield@hotmail.com
Above views may belong only to me.

 

[mike]

eeh wrote:

Hi,

Just a question: Is ferrite bead actually an inductor? Or a filter?

Thnaks!

First question to ask is, "What do I mean by ferrite bead?"

Ferrite bead is a generic term applied to donut shaped pieces of
SOME material. If you dumped a bunch of electronic componetry on the
bench and asked a dozen people to pick out the ferrite beads, you'd
probably get very good agreement among the group.

But if you aske those same people about the characteristics of those
devices, you'd get a lot of disagreement.
The correct answer is, "Where's the spec sheet for this device?"

www.amidoncorp.com
has some spec sheets.
Also ran across this interesting article
http://www.uska.ch/emv/de/pdf_dat/amidon_d2.pdf

mike



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