B
Bob Masta
Guest
The media has been making a big to-do about a study showing
a correlation between cell phone use and brain activity:
<well.blogs.nytimes.com/2011/02/22/cellphone-use-tied-to-changes-in-brain-activity/>
I am completely underwhelmed. Besides the small size of the
reported change (7% near the active phone), I am especially
underwhelmed by the methodology: The subjects had a phone
strapped to each ear, with the control case being both
phones off, and the test case being one phone active. But
"active" in this experiment meant *receiving* a (muted)
50-minute recorded message, not transmitting.
Now, I am surely ignorant about the details of cell phone
protocols, but I would imagine that in the receiving state
there would be minimal transmitter activity by the phone...
maybe some sort of occasional handshake or something, but
basically not much. Is this mistaken?
If I am correct, then this study seems rather strange: Why
not test with the transmitter active? With only the
receiver active, why would we expect any difference compared
to no cell phone at all? After all, we are all being
exposed to normal RF from cell phones and all sorts of
things.
This makes me suspect that the investigators may have been
generally clueless about what they thought they were
investigating.
And if they found a difference when *receiving* a call,
doesn't it sound like this "effect" must be due to something
trivial like added warmth from receiver circuit activity?
(That would cause a small increase in blood circulation,
which would account for the small increase in activity.)
Any thoughts?
Bob Masta
DAQARTA v6.00
Data AcQuisition And Real-Time Analysis
www.daqarta.com
Scope, Spectrum, Spectrogram, Sound Level Meter
Frequency Counter, FREE Signal Generator
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a correlation between cell phone use and brain activity:
<well.blogs.nytimes.com/2011/02/22/cellphone-use-tied-to-changes-in-brain-activity/>
I am completely underwhelmed. Besides the small size of the
reported change (7% near the active phone), I am especially
underwhelmed by the methodology: The subjects had a phone
strapped to each ear, with the control case being both
phones off, and the test case being one phone active. But
"active" in this experiment meant *receiving* a (muted)
50-minute recorded message, not transmitting.
Now, I am surely ignorant about the details of cell phone
protocols, but I would imagine that in the receiving state
there would be minimal transmitter activity by the phone...
maybe some sort of occasional handshake or something, but
basically not much. Is this mistaken?
If I am correct, then this study seems rather strange: Why
not test with the transmitter active? With only the
receiver active, why would we expect any difference compared
to no cell phone at all? After all, we are all being
exposed to normal RF from cell phones and all sorts of
things.
This makes me suspect that the investigators may have been
generally clueless about what they thought they were
investigating.
And if they found a difference when *receiving* a call,
doesn't it sound like this "effect" must be due to something
trivial like added warmth from receiver circuit activity?
(That would cause a small increase in blood circulation,
which would account for the small increase in activity.)
Any thoughts?
Bob Masta
DAQARTA v6.00
Data AcQuisition And Real-Time Analysis
www.daqarta.com
Scope, Spectrum, Spectrogram, Sound Level Meter
Frequency Counter, FREE Signal Generator
Pitch Track, Pitch-to-MIDI
Science with your sound card!