B
Bill Bowden
Guest
On Sep 13, 4:33 am, Eeyore <rabbitsfriendsandrelati...@hotmail.com>
wrote:
noise. I assume the second stage is a also ideal and adds no noise.
Therefore two amplifiers with a gain of ONE will produce the same
output as the input.
What am I missing?
-Bill
wrote:
I don't follow the logic. The first stage is ideal since it adds noBill Bowden wrote:
Why would a higher gain first stage improve noise performance? Seems
like identical op-amps would produce the same total noise regardless
of how the gain was distributed?
Let me simplifiy this for you.
Let's say the input noise of your amp stage is 1 uV ?
You set your fist stage gain to ONE. It theoretically produces 1uV of output noise. This then
adds to the second stage noise of 1uV making 1.4uV equivalent input noise (addition of random
sources).
So you just made a noisier amplifier. Now do the calculations for other gain distributions.
Graham
noise. I assume the second stage is a also ideal and adds no noise.
Therefore two amplifiers with a gain of ONE will produce the same
output as the input.
What am I missing?
-Bill